by JBG » Tue Aug 16, 2005 5:19 pm
There has been some precedent here in that Germany paid a lot of compensation to Holocuast victims (and if memory serves correct still do, as well as financial and military aid to Israel) after World War Two. They were also forced to pay the Soviet Union reparations, although much of this amounted to Soviet armed forces stripping down workshops, putting them into railroad cars and shipping them east.....where most of the booty rusted into oblivion on railroad sidings.
China and Korea are currently seeking damages for women used by the Japanese armed forces as slave prostitutes during the 1930s and 1940s. As far as I know, the Japanese are refusing to yield on this.
I think the crucial difference is that, in the majority, the people seeking compensation are either the victims themselves or their direct lineal descendants. Most Western countries have a doctrine of fatal injury compensation in their legal systems, where the immediate family can sue for damages where a loved one dies either at the deliberate hand or recklessness or negligence of another person. From what Niall says above, this guy is looking for compensation for "crimes" that were committed centuries ago. I say "crimes" as of course, to any sensible minded person, slavery is a crime, but legally, slavery was allowed and legal in even Western European countries up until about 250 years ago. It wasn't a "crime" (in a strict technical sense) then, and while it is most certainly a crime now, it is very difficult to change a law retrospectively.
Of course Western Countries are not proud of slavery, but it was done by our forefathers hundreds of years ago. We today are not responsible for it so why should we pay for it now?
Jolly Bob Grumbine.